Selasa, 28 April 2009

chapter 9 discovery ccna2

1. How many usable host addresses does the subnet provide?
2. A network technician has isolated a problem at the transport layer of the OSI
model. Which question would provide further information about the problem?

Do you have a firewall that is configured on your PC?
Do you have a link light on your network card?
Is your PC configured to obtain addressing information using DHCP?
What default gateway address is configured in your TCP/IP settings?
Can you ping
3. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is in the process of sending a
preconfigured text file to a router. When the administrator pastes the
configuration into the router, an error message appears. What is the problem with
the IP addressing scheme?

Serial0/0 is configured with a network address.
The IP address on FastEthernet0/0 overlaps with the IP on FastEthernet0/1.
Serial0/1 is configured with a broadcast address.
The IP address on FastEthernet0/0 overlaps with the IP on Serial0/1.
4. A user can access any web page on the Internet but cannot access e-mail. What
troubleshooting method would be most efficient for troubleshooting this issue?

impossible to determine from this information
5. Refer to the exhibit. What are two possible causes for the interface status?
(Choose two.)

The loopback address is not set.
The encapsulation type is mismatched.
A cable is not attached to the interface.
Keepalive messages are not being received.
The interface is administratively shut down.
6. Refer to the exhibit. Host H1 on the LAN is not able to access the FTP server
across the Internet. Which two configuration statements are causing this problem?
(Choose two.)

There is no route to the Internet.
The IP address on Fa0/0 is incorrect.
The IP address on S0/0/0 is incorrect.
The NAT command on the Fa0/0 interface is applied in the wrong direction.
The NAT command on the S0/0/0 interface is applied in the wrong direction.

7. Which two conditions identify issues that are confined to Layer 1? (Choose two.)
cables that exceed maximum length
encapsulation errors
viruses and worms that create excessive broadcast traffic
poor termination of cables
receiving "line protocol down" messages on the router console
8. A network administrator is upgrading a Cisco 1841 router by adding a WIC-2T module
card. Which show command can the administrator use to verify that the module is
correctly recognized by the router?

show flash:
show version
show ip route
show startup-configuration
9. Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator
suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be
used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)

show arp
show ip route

show controllers
show cdp neighbor
10. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true regarding the IP address

Interfaces Fa0/0 and Fa0/1 can be in the same subnet.
Interface Fa0/0 and NetworkA can be in the same subnet.
Interface Fa0/0 and NetworkB can be in the same subnet.
Interface Fa0/1 and NetworkB can be in the same subnet.
11. A network administrator plugs a new PC into a switch port. The LED for that port
changes to solid green. What statement best describes the current status of the

There is a duplex mismatch error.
There is a link fault error. This port is unable to forward frames.
The port is operational and ready to transmit packets.
This port has been disabled by management and is unable to forward frames.
The flash memory is busy.
12. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the output of the show
ip interface brief command? (Choose three.)

FastEthernet0/0 is functioning correctly.
The shutdown command has been applied on Serial0/0.
FastEthernet0/0 was configured by the startup-config at bootup.
Serial0/0 is experiencing a Layer 1 network problem.
FastEthernet0/1 is experiencing a Layer 2 network problem.
Because the port is down, Serial0/1 has an IP address that does not show in
the output.
13. Refer to the exhibit. Users on the network are unable to access
anyone on the network. What two problems exist in the network?
(Choose two.)

R2 is using a different version of RIP.
R2 has a missing network statement.

R1 has an incorrect network statement.
R3 has an incorrect network statement.
A routing loop is occurring between all three routers.

14. Refer to the exhibit. The PC is trying to ping router B at, but it
fails. What is the problem?

The PC is on the wrong subnet.
The default gateway on the PC should be
The default gateway should be
The DNS server is incorrect.
The IP address for Fa0/0 on router A is incorrect.
15. An administrator is creating a lab to simulate a WAN connection. During the setup,
the administrator notices that there are different encapsulation types on each end
of the serial connection. At what layer of the OSI model is this problem

Layer 2
Layer 4
Layer 5
Layer 6
16. !!!Warning!!! this question is not included:Refer to the exhibit. A router initially boots up to ROMMON mode. The administrator enters the dir flash: command and sees the output that is shown. What should the administrator do next?
Load a new IOS onto the router by the use of TFTP.
Load a new IOS onto the router via XMODEM.
Boot the router using the reset command in ROMMON.
Erase the file in flash and reboot the router.

but this one is
No one of buiseness can access to a web sites. Admin has checked all cable conections and entered command nslookup. What will be the result of this request?(something like that, don’t remember exactly)
DNS Failure..

17. A PC is able to reach devices that are located both inside and outside the
network. However, when trying to reach an FTP server that is located on the same
subnet, the PC fails to make a connection. The administrator has several other PCs
that are located in the same subnet try a connection to the FTP server and they
are successful. Which troubleshooting tool can be used to determine the problem
between the PC and the FTP server?

cable tester
digital multimeter
protocol analyzer
network analyzer
18. Refer to the exhibit. Which IP address is misconfigured and is causing
connectivity problems between hosts and servers?

R1 Fa0/0
R1 Fa0/1
19. Which problem is associated with Layer 4 of the OSI model?
A firewall is blocking Telnet packets to a host.
A host has an incorrect IP address.
A router has no route to a host.
A host sent a malformed HTTP request.
20. A user is having trouble accessing the Internet. A network administrator begins by
verifying that the IP address of the PC is correctly configured. Next the
administrator pings the default gateway. Based on this information, what type of
troubleshooting method is the administrator employing?

impossible to determine from this information

chapter 8 discovery ccna2

1 Which AAA service reduces IT operating costs by providing detailed reporting
and monitoring of network user behavior, and also by keeping a record of every
access connection and device configuration change across the network?
* accounting
2 Which two characteristics of network traffic are being monitored if a network
technician configures the company firewall to operate as a packet filter? (Choose
physical addresses
packet size
* ports
* protocols
3 A server log includes this entry: User student accessed host server ABC using
Telnet yesterday for 10 minutes. What type of log entry is this?
* accounting
4 Which three protocols describe methods that can be used to secure user data for
transmission across the internet? (Choose three.)

5 A network administrator is assigning network permissions to new groups of
users and employing the principle of least privilege. Which two actions should the
administrator take? (Choose two.)
* Provide users with only the access to resources required to do their jobs.
* Provide the minimum level of permissions required for users to do their jobs.
Remove all permissions from the users and grant permissions as they are
Allow users to decide how much permission they need to accomplish their job
Provide full access to the users and gradually remove privileges over time.
6 Which of the following does SNMP use to hold information collected about the
network management station
network management database
* management information base
database information agent
7 What is the term for the public network between the boundary router and the
"clean" LAN
8 What two measures help to verify that server backups have been reliably
completed? (Choose two.)
* reviewing backup logs
performing trial backups
performing full backups only
replacing tape backup with hard disk-based backup
* using an autoloader when backups require more than one tape
9 A company wants to configure a firewall to monitor all channels of
communication and allow only traffic that is part of a known connection. Which
firewall configuration should be deployed?

packet filtering
* stateful packet inspection
stateless packet inspection
10 What AAA component assigns varying levels of rights to users of network
* authorization
access control
11 A hacker has gained access to sensitive network files. In analyzing the attack, it
is found that the hacker gained access over a wireless segment of the network. It
is further discovered that the only security measure in place on the wireless
network is MAC Address Filtering. How is it likely that the hacker gained access
to the network?
The hacker used a software tool to crack the shared hexadecimal wireless key.
* The hacker obtained the MAC address of a permitted host, and cloned it on his
wireless laptop NIC.
The attacker mounted a denial of service attack to overwhelm the firewall before
penetrating the wireless LAN.
The hacker gained wireless access to the MAC address database and added his
own MAC address to the list of permitted addresses.
12 Which three items are normally included when a log message is generated by a
syslog client and forwarded to a syslog server? (Choose three.)
* date and time of message
* ID of sending device
length of message
* message ID
checksum field
community ID

13 Which benefit does SSH offer over Telnet when remotely managing a router?
* encryption
TCP usage
connection using six VTY lines
14 Which three protocols are used for in-band management? (Choose three.)
* Telnet
15 Before a technician upgrades a server, it is necessary to back up all data.
Which type of backup is necessary to ensure that all data is backed up?
* full
16 Which means of communication does an SNMP network agent use to provide
a network management station with important but unsolicited information?
ICMP ping
* trap
17 When is the use of out-of-band network management necessary?
when a server needs to be monitored across the network
* when the management interface of a device is not reachable across the network
when enhanced monitoring features are required to gain an overall view of the
entire network
when it is desirable to use the information that is provided by SNMP

18 What is the advantage of using WPA to secure a wireless network?
It uses a 128-bit pre-shared hexadecimal key to prevent unauthorized wireless
* It uses an advanced encryption key that is never transmitted between host and
access point.
It is supported on older wireless hardware, thus providing maximum compatibility
with enterprise equipment.
It requires the MAC address of a network device that is requesting wireless access
to be on a list of approved MAC addresses.
19 What network layer security protocol can secure any application layer protocol
used for communication?
20 What are two potential problems with using tape media to back up server data?
(Choose two.)
Tape is not a cost-effective means of backing up data.
Data tapes are difficult to store offsite.
* Data tapes are prone to failure and must be replaced often.
* Tape drives require regular cleaning to maintain reliability.
Backup logs are not available with tape backup solutions.

chapter 7 ccna2 discovery

To meet customer expectations, an ISP must guarantee a level of service that is
based on what two factors? (Choose two.)
* availability
* reliability
A manufacturing company is looking into subscribing to services from a new ISP.
The company requires hosted world wide web, file transfer, and e-mail services.
Which three protocols represent the key application services that are required b
are three charactey the company? (Choose three.)
Which two tasks are the responsibility of the local DNS server? (Choose two.)
maintaining a large number of cached DNS entries
maintaining the ISP server

* mapping name-to-IP addresses for internal hosts
forwarding name resolution requests to a caching-only server
* forwarding all name resolution requests to root servers on the Internet
When a host is communicating with multiple applications on the same server at
the same time, which of the following will have the same value for each session?
(Choose two.)
* IP address
MAC address
* session number
sequence number
What are three characteristics of HTTPS? (Choose three.)
It uses a different client request-server response process than HTTP uses.
It specifies additional rules for passing data between the application and data link
* It supports authentication.
It allows more simultaneous connections than HTTP allows.
* It encrypts packets with SSL.
* It requires additional server processing time.
Refer to the exhibit. Host1 is in the process of setting up a TCP session with
Host2. Host1 has sent a SYN message to begin session establishment. What
happens next?
Host1 sends an ACK message to Host2.
Host1 sends a SYN message to Host2.
Host1 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host2.
Host2 sends an ACK message to Host1.
Host2 sends a SYN message to Host1.
* Host2 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host1.

What is the function of the TCP three-way handshake?
It enables the synchronization of port numbers between source and destination
It immediately triggers the retransmission of lost data.
* It synchronizes both ends of a connection by allowing both sides to agree upon
initial sequence numbers.
It identifies the destination application on the receiving host.
Which two statements describe the FTP protocol? (Choose two.)
It uses well-known port 23.
The protocol interpreter is responsible for the data transfer function.
* In passive data connections, the FTP client initiates the transfer of data.
* It requires two connections between client and server.
FTP servers open a well-known port on the client machine.
User1 is sending an e-mail to What are two characteristics of
the process of sending this data? (Choose two.)
It utilizes TCP port 110.
A TCP connection is established directly between the User1 and User2 client
computers in order to send the e-mail message.
* It utilizes a store and forward process.
The same application layer protocol is used to send the e-mail and retrieve it from
the destination server.
* SMTP is used to send the e-mail message to the mail servers.
Refer to the exhibit. The PC is requesting HTTP data from the server. What is a
valid representation of source and destination sockets for this request?
Source - ; Destination -
Source - ; Destination -
* Source - ; Destination -
Source - ; Destination -

Which two options correctly match protocol and well-known port number?
(Choose two.)
DNS - 25
FTP - 110
* HTTP - 80
POP3 - 25
* SMTP - 25
Which two statements are true about the OSI and TCP/IP models? (Choose two.)
The two bottom layers of the TCP/IP model make up the bottom layer of the OSI
The TCP/IP model is a theoretical model and the OSI model is based on actual
* The OSI network layer is comparable to the Internet layer of the TCP/IP model.
The TCP/IP model specifies protocols for the physical network interconnection.
* The TCP/IP model is based on four layers and the OSI model is based on seven
Which DNS zone resolves an IP address to a qualified domain name?
dynamic lookup
forward lookup
resolution lookup
* reverse lookup
Within TCP, what combination makes up a socket pair?
source port with destination port
source IP address with destination port
source IP address and destination IP address
* source IP address and port with a destination IP address and port
What are three unique characteristics of UDP? (Choose three.)
connection oriented

full-duplex operation
* low overhead
* no flow control
* no error-recovery function
reliable transmission
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about this file? (Choose two.)
* If the gateway address changes, the file will be updated dynamically.
* The command ping fileserv will use IP address
If the ping command is issued, the file will be checked for the
Cisco web server IP address before DNS is queried.
The file must be created by the user if it is to be used by a workstation.
Name to IP address mappings are added to the file after they are received from
Which protocol is used to send e-mail, either from a client to a server or from a
server to another server?
What are three characteristics of network reliability? (Choose three.)
* Redundant hardware provides enhanced reliability.
Reliability is measured as a percent.
Reliability is the responsibility of the ISP customers.
* Fault tolerance is a measure of reliability.
* The longer the MTBF, the greater the reliability.
A client is communicating with a server on a different segment of the network.
How does the server determine what service is being requested by the client?
The server will apply the default service configured in directory services.

The server will use ARP to discover the appropriate service from the local router.
The server will send a request to the client asking for the appropriate service.
* The server will determine the appropriate service from the destination port field.
What type of DNS server is typically maintained by an ISP?
* caching-only
What type of update allows client computers to register and update their resource
records with a DNS server whenever changes occur?
* dynamic
zone transfer
local recursive query
root domain query
top-level domain query

chapter 6 discovery

1. Which command is used to view the RIP routing protocol settings and configuration?
• show version
• show ip route
• show interface
• show ip protocols

Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum number of RIP routers that could separate HostA and HostB and still leave the hosts with connectivity to each other?
• 14
• 15
• 16
• 17

3. In which situation would a company register for its own autonomous system number (ASN)?
• when the company's ISP adds connection points to the Internet
• when additional routers are added to the corporate internetwork
• when more than one interior routing protocol is used
• when the company uses two or more ISPs

4. Consider this routing table entry
• R [120/1] via 00:00:27 Serial0/1
• What type of route is this?
• a static route
• a default route
• a RIP route
• an OSPF route
• an EIGRP route
• a directly-connected route

5. What is the difference between interior and exterior routing protocols?
• Exterior routing protocols are only used by large ISPs. Interior routing protocols are used by small ISPs.
• Interior routing protocols are used to route on the Internet. Exterior routing protocols are used inside organizations.
• Exterior routing protocols are used to administer a single autonomous system. Interior routing protocols are used to administer several domains.
• Interior routing protocols are used to communicate within a single autonomous system. Exterior routing protocols are used to communicate between multiple autonomous systems.

6. What information is included in RIPv2 routing updates that is not included in RIPv1 updates?
• metric
• subnet mask
• area identification
• hop count
• autonomous system number

7. Which routing protocol is used to exchange data between two different ISPs?
• RIP v2

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration command or commands contributed to the output that is shown?
• routerA(config-router)# no version 2
• routerA(config)# interface fa0/0
• routerA(config-if)# ip address
• routerA(config-router)# network
• routerA(config)# no ip default-gateway

Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP and network goes down, when will R3 learn that the network is no longer available?
• in 30 seconds
• in 60 seconds
• in 90 seconds
• Immediately

10. What statement is true regarding an AS number?
• AS numbers are controlled and registered for Internet use.
• Interior routing protocols require registered AS numbers.
• ISPs require all customers to have registered AS numbers.
• All routers at an ISP must be assigned the same AS number.

11. What is the purpose of the network command used when configuring RIP?
• to specify whether RIPv1 or RIPv2 will be used as the routing protocol
• to allow the router to monitor RIP updates that occur on other routers
• to identify which networks on the router will send and receive RIP updates
• to configure the IP address on an interface that will use RIP
• to identify all of the remote networks that should be reachable from the router

12. Which command would a network administrator use to determine if the routers in an enterprise have learned about a newly added network?
• router# show ip address
• router# show ip route
• router# show ip networks
• router# show ip interface brief
• router# debug ip protocol
• router# debug rip update

13. What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
• It is used to build and maintain ARP tables.
• It provides a method for segmenting and reassembling data packets.
• It allows an administrator to devise an addressing scheme for the network.
• It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.
• It provides a procedure for encoding and decoding data into bits for packet forwarding.

14. What device enables an ISP to connect with other ISPs to transfer data?
• border gateway router
• web server
• interior router

15. Which command will display RIP routing updates as they are sent and received?
• show ip route
• show ip rip
• debug ip rip
• show ip protocols
• show ip rip database

16. Which part of an IP packet does the router use to make routing decisions?
• source IP address
• source MAC address
• destination IP address
• destination MAC address

17. What two types of businesses would benefit from registering as their own autonomous systems? (Choose two.)
• a home business with one ISP connection
• a global business with connections to multiple local ISPs
• a medium-sized nationwide business with Internet connectivity through different ISPs

• a large enterprise with two connections to the same ISP
• a small ISP with a single Internet connection through a larger ISP

18. Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router?
• debug ip rip
• show ip route
• show ip interface
• show ip protocols
• debug ip rip config
• show ip rip database

19. Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?
• Routers will not allow packets to be forwarded until the network has converged.
• Hosts are unable to access their gateway until the network has converged.
• Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.
• Routers will not allow configuration changes to be made until the network has converged.

20. Which two statements describe static routes? (Choose two.)
• They are created in interface configuration mode.
• They require manual reconfiguration to accommodate network changes.
• They automatically become the default gateway of the router.
• They are identified in the routing table with the prefix S
• They are automatically updated whenever an interface is reconfigured or shutdown.

21. Which two statements or sets of statements describe differences between link-state and distance vector routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• Link-state routing protocols routinely use more bandwidth for updates than do distance vector routing protocols.
• Distance vector routing protocols update all routers at one time. Link-state routing protocols update one router at a time.
• Link-state routers only know about directly connected routers. Distance vector routers know about every router in the network.
• Link-state routing protocols update when a change is made. A network using distance vector routing protocols only updates at a specific interval.

• Distance vector routing protocols have limited information about the entire network. Link state routing protocols know about all routers in the network.
• In case of similar topologies, networks using link-state routing protocols typically converge more rapidly than do networks using distance vector routing protocols.

22. Which protocol is an exterior routing protocol?

23. Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)
• Ping
• show arp
• Traceroute
• show ip route

• show interface
• show cdp neighbor detail

24. What term refers to a group of networks that uses the same internal routing policies and is controlled by a single administrative authority?
• Internet
• intranet
• virtual private network
• autonomous system

chapter 5 discovery

1. vIn what two ways does SDM differ from the IOS CLI? (Choose two.)
• SDM is used for in-band management only. The IOS CLI can be used for in-band and out-of-band management.
• SDM is accessed through a Telnet application. The IOS CLI is accessed through a web browser.
• SDM is available for all router platforms. The IOS CLI is available for a limited number of Cisco devices.
• SDM utilizes GUI buttons and text boxes. The IOS CLI requires the use of text-based commands.
• SDM is used for advanced configuration tasks. The IOS CLI is preferred for initial basic device configuration.

2. Which mode will a configured router display at login?
• global configuration mode
• setup mode
• ROM monitor mode
• user EXEC mode

Refer to the exhibit. Which password or passwords will be encrypted as a result of the configuration that is shown?
• virtual terminal only
• enable mode only
• console and virtual terminal only
• enable mode and virtual terminal
• only the service password
• all configured passwords

Refer to the exhibit. Which three sets of commands are required to enable administrators to connect to the Switch1 console over Telnet for configuration and management? (Choose three.)
• Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address
• Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address
• Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address
Switch1(config-if)# no shutdown
• Switch1(config)# line vty 0 4
Switch1(config-line)# enable password cisco
Switch1(config-line)# login
• Switch1(config)# line vty 0 15
Switch1(config-line)# password cisco
Switch1(config-line)# login
• Switch1(config)# ip default-gateway

5. How does the SYST LED on the catalyst 2960 switch indicate a POST failure?
• blinks rapidly amber
• blinks rapidly green
• steady amber
• steady green

Refer to the exhibit. A company always uses the last valid IP address in a subnetwork as the IP address of the router LAN interface. A network administrator is using a laptop to configure switch X with a default gateway. Assuming that the switch IP address is, what command will the administrator use to assign a default gateway to the switch?
• X(config)# ip default-gateway
• X(config)# ip gateway
• X(config)# ip route
• X(config)# ip default-route
• X(config)# ip route fastethernet 0/0

7. A technician has made changes to the configuration of a router. What command will allow the technician to view the current configuration before he saves the changes?
• router# show running-config
• router# show startup-config
• router# show flash
• router# show version

8. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
• VTY interface
• console interface

• Ethernet interface
• secret EXEC mode
• privileged EXEC mode
• router configuration mode

9. To save time, IOS commands may be partially entered and then completed by typing which key or key combination?
• Tab
• Ctrl-P
• Ctrl-N
• Up Arrow
• Right Arrow
• Down Arrow

10. What is the correct command sequence to configure a router host name to 'LAB_A'?
• Router> enable
Router# configure terminal
Router(config)# hostname LAB_A

• Router> enable
Router# hostname LAB_A
• Router> enable
Router# configure router
Router(config)# hostname LAB_A
• Router> enable
Router(config)# host name LAB_A

Refer to the exhibit. From the router console, an administrator is unable to ping a Catalyst switch that is located in another building. What can the administrator do from her location to check the IP configuration of the attached switch?
• Open an SDM session with the switch from her desktop.
• Telnet to the switch from the router console.
• Use the show cdp neighbors detail command from the router console.
• The administrator must go to the switch location and make a console connection to check these settings.

12. Which two options must be selected in SDM Express to enable a router serial interface to obtain an IP address automatically? (Choose two.)
• Easy IP (IP negotiated)
• IP unnumbered
• No IP address
• HDLC encapsulation
• Frame Relay encapsulation
• PPP encapsulation

13. What three settings can be made in the SDM Express basic configuration screen? (Choose three.)
• host name
• DHCP options
• domain name
• interface IP addresses
• enable secret password
• DNS server IP addresses

14. Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose two.)
• View a list of commands entered in a previous session.
• Recall up to 15 command lines by default.
• Set the command history buffer size.
• Recall previously entered commands.

• Save command lines in a log file for future reference.

15. What option within Cisco SDM Express must be configured to allow hosts that receive IP address settings from the router to resolve names on the network or Internet?
• host name
• domain name
• DHCP address pool
• DNS server IP address

16. Which three encapsulation types can be set on a serial interface by an administrator who is using SDM Express? (Choose three.)
• Frame Relay


17. Which command will display routing table information about all known networks and subnetworks?
• Router# show ip interfaces
• Router# show ip connections
• Router# show ip route
• Router# show ip networks

18. A network administrator needs to configure a router. Which of the following connection methods requires network functionality to be accessible?
• console
• Telnet
• modem

19. Which three pieces of information about a neighbor device can be obtained by the show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)
• platform
• routing protocol
• connected interface of neighbor device
• device ID

• IP addresses of all interfaces
• enable mode password

Which function is a unique responsibility of the DCE devices shown in the exhibit?
• transmission of data
• reception of data
• clocking for the synchronous link
• noise cancellation in transmitted data

21. Which of the following are functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)
• stores the routing table
• retains contents when power is removed
• stores the startup configuration file

• contains the running configuration file
• stores the ARP table

Refer to the exhibit. Which series of commands will enable users who are attached to Router1 to access the remote server?
• Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router1(config-if)# ip address
Router1(config-if)# clock rate 64000
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown
• Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router1(config-if)# ip address
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown
• Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router1(config-if)# ip address
Router1(config-if)# clock rate 64000
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown
• Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router1(config-if)# ip address
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown

23. A network technician is attempting to add an older workstation to a Cisco switched LAN. The technician has manually configured the workstation to full-duplex mode in order to enhance the network performance of the workstation. However, when the device is attached to the network, performance degrades and excess collision are detected. What is the cause of this problem?
• The host is configured in a different subnet from the subnet of the switch.
• There is a duplex mismatch between the workstation and switch port.
• The switch port is running at a different speed from the speed of the workstation NIC.
• The host has been configured with a default gateway that is different from that of the switch.

24. Which of the following statements are true regarding the user EXEC mode? (Choose two.)
• All router commands are available.
• Global configuration mode can be accessed by entering the enable command.
• A password can be entered to allow access to other modes.
• Interfaces and routing protocols can be configured.
• Only some aspects of the router configuration can be viewed.

25. Which command turns on a router interface?
• Router(config-if)# enable
• Router(config-if)# no down
• Router(config-if)# s0 active
• Router(config-if)# interface up
• Router(config-if)# no shutdown